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Hiding HTML/SCRIPT... I think it IS possible! I have only been programming for about six months now, but I put in about 40 hours a week’s worth.  Let’s call it my new hobby.  Anyways, I remember reading posts in the past by individuals who requested a certain feature that seemed very ridiculous at the time.   They wanted to hide their code from the user!   Now, one of the first questions that popped up in my head was why on earth would someone wish to ‘hide’ their code.  After all, the internet is all about trading technologies (right?).  Anyways, every now and then I gave the subject a little more thought and I eventually came to a conclusion.   Internet Applications are the wave of the future.  They don’t need to be installed and they will work on any computer (for the most part).  So, if anyone would want their code hidden from the user, it would seem that it would be the application developer community.  I am currently working on a web application and I have been working on it for almost six months now, I certainly would be very upset if someone acquired my code, copied my product and just changed a few headings and made money off my hard work.    Anyways, back to the topic of ‘hiding’ code.  Does everyone out there still think it’s impossible?   I think it’s possible.   Actually, I believe I have found a way to do it (accidentally).  Who knows, maybe the late night programming and the double espresso’s have paid off.  I believe that I found a way to set up a site so that all the user ever sees is about 10 lines of code and that’s it.  I am not talking about disabling the right button; I am just talking about using a different style.   Who’s interested in pushing this conversation further?      Started By sparkrulez on Mar 9, 2003 at 2:10:50 AM

4629 Response(s) | Reply

Monte on Jul 3, 2003 at 1:33:33 PM (# 374) Yeah, I saw that episode...it was a pretty interesting episode. MHenke on Jul 4, 2003 at 4:11:07 AM (# 375) So, cdrom600, here we go again. Why can photons move at speed of light? The (well known) formular e=mc² describes the relation between mass and energy, but according to the theory of relativity the mass of a particle is relative to its speed, and m stands for that relative mass.  The special case e0=m0c² describes the rest energy of an object (where m0 is its rest mass) and both are constant particle properties. The relation between rest mass, relative mass and speed is represented by the (simple) formular m=m0/sqrt(1-v²/c²) that, if inserted into e=mc² leads to our known result that the energy of a particle grows to infinite if the speed of the particle nears the speed of light, or rephrased, it takes an infinite amount of energy to accelerate a particle at speed of light. But that's valid only for particles that have a rest mass greater zero! And that's it. Photons have a rest mass of zero, although they actualy have a relative mass. And that's no discrepancy, since they don't exists in a state of rest, the speed fo light (and therefore the speed of photons) is constant. Moreover, we can easily calculate the mass m of a photon. Since the energy e of a photon at a given frequence f could be calculated  as e=h*f (where h is Plank's constant 6.625*10-34 J), we retrieve h*f = mc² and m=h*f/c²... Example: A photon with a frequence of 10kHz has an energy e = h*f = 6.625*10-34Js * 10000s-1 = 6.625*10-30J (J = m2kgs-2) Inserted in e=mc², resolved to m=e/c² (c ~ 3*108 m/s) m = e/c2 = 6,625*10-30 m2kgs-2/ 9*1016m2s-2 = 7.4*10-47kg Well, that's quite lightweight, but it's more than nothing... :] ChrisRickard on Jul 4, 2003 at 8:54:57 PM (# 376) So does that mean as e->0 mass also -> 0??? Holophrastic on Jul 5, 2003 at 12:37:33 AM (# 377) well, that's a round-about perspective, but yes. e is a measure of an objects speed and of its mass -- its inertia/momentum/force.  if it had no mass, it would have no energy, it would require no energy to move it, and it would require no energy to stop it.  And since it has no energy, it wouldn't exist. now of course, we flow between many ages of physics here, and surely the next one will disagree, but for now, that's the story. look at things the other way -- every object is nothing more than a ball of energy.  That energy can be in the form of mass, or a few other things.  The objects we find familiar are of mass.  And any energy required to move that mass now becomes part of that moving mass. so if a ball is e=4 and you hit it with force 2 then the ball is now of e=6.  when it stops, it will be 4 again. Terry Young on Jul 5, 2003 at 10:35:43 AM (# 378) This message has been edited. Darn, I've missed it. Anyway, since the "damage" has been done, it wouldn't hurt to... Terry Young on Dam 0, 0000 at 0:00:00 AM (# 400) ... try again... ^^ Interesting how this thread leads us to, btw... And interesting if you look at Hol's post time compared to mine... and the order of the posts... we're bouncing back in time... MHenke on Jul 7, 2003 at 1:34:40 AM (# 379) ChrisRickard, >So does that mean as e->0 mass also -> 0??? Yep, that's a inevitable conclusion of e=mc². Colloquial rephrased, it says that mass and energie are equivalent, they differ just in a constant (c²). So, e->0 <=> m->0. But, as said before, rest mass and rest energy of a particle are constant properties, so an arbitrary particle won't vanish if it "stops", that's valid only for particles that has a rest mass of zero... (And of course, as Holo already insinuated, only if our universe actually follows the theory of relativity, nobody knows for sure, although by now it's a quite good model and there are several experimetal proofs...) And Terry, from where you're posting? A spaceship with negative rest mass traveling at hyper speed of light? im3dia on Jul 7, 2003 at 6:07:15 PM (# 380) First of all "Hi to everybody!" My opinion for the moment and I don't think it will change in the near future is that it is impossible to hide the source code... I don't really know why this thread has so many pages to tell you the truth! However I have an interesting source code at http://www.interactivedia.com/encrypt/  Cheers! Andy

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